Offutt Air Force Base (OAFB) Response Force Member (RFM) Practice Exam

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• Two types of jurisdiction at Offutt AFB are which terms?
• Who can terminate a stop, check, and pass?
• Which form is used as a Visitor Pass?
• What does exclusive jurisdiction mean?
• Funds escort
• What is the minimum age to sponsor someone onto base?
• Which option lists all eight preconditions of deadly force?
• What does FPCAM stand for in force protection communications?
• During post-assumption readiness checks, SSI/EALs should be maintained how?
• What actions does Echo 7 take upon initiation of a klaxon?
• Which code corresponds to Suicide?
• Limited area is defined as what?
• What must you not do when transporting funds?
• What is the radio transmission distance for handheld and vehicle-mounted radios during a code 99?
• How is NAOC described for PL 3 resources when maintenance is ongoing?
• Proprietary jurisdiction is defined as what?
• Which set of assets constitutes PL 2 resources?
• If someone does not consent to a RVI, what should you inform them?
• For Alert NAOC, what are the unescorted requirements?
• Who determines when, where, and how to implement RVIs?
• CGEAL stands for what?
• What are SF's four authorities?
• Active denial to the installation can result in which of the following?
• What action must Echo 6 take upon initiation of a klaxon?
• SF reliability standard requires all SF members to be routinely monitored for what?
• Unescorted entry requirement for non alert NAOC includes which of the following?
• In a LACE report, what do the color codes map to in terms of percentage?
• What code is used for explosive detection via a dog?
• What action describes the sign-in/out process for entering the CGEAL area?
• Consent to search & seize is documented on which form?
• During readiness checks, what should be done about trash?
• A Green DBIDS card provides access eligibility for which groups?
• Blue Dart details must include which items?
• What is the total number of personnel comprising the 5-in-5 response force?
• How many people are required to conduct a Rapid Visual Inspection (RVI)?
• RAB w/ open area 17: what is described?
• DD Form 1408 is used for what purpose?
• Which type of area search is described by lines and grid patterns applied for coverage?
• Which of the following is included in a GOTWA report?
• Which statement is true about the 5-in-5 force composition?
• What form is used as a receipt for a detained person?
• What is the purpose of a Random Vehicle Inspection (RVI)?
• Bomb threat aid card: Which form is used as the bomb threat aid card?
• Under the Uniform Code of Military Justice, Article 92 addresses what offense?
• When the aircraft is occupied or opened, whose responsibility is it to ensure TPC is maintained within the aircraft?
• A Green DBIDS card authorizes access for which groups?
• Minimum clearance for two-person concept team member?
• What is the overall purpose of the Random Vehicle Inspection program?
• Which option correctly lists PL 2 resources?
• Which option correctly expands PRP?
• Which of the following is NOT a PRAP requirement?
• Which entity is responsible for maintaining ABNCP CGEAL in general?
• Who will maintain the alert ABNCP CGEAL when the aircraft launches?
• Article 2 of the UCMJ defines which of the following?
• Which of the following is not a valid LACE color code?
• What must SVA do with their escorted individual prior to entering an exclusion area?
• The LACE report includes which items and how are colors coded?
• What is the purpose of the AF Form 1176?
• Who is the termination authority for covered wagon situations involving the USSTRATCOM complex?
• The Blue DBIDS card is used to identify which group?
• Which statement best describes a security incident?
• What is the only authorized method for an individual not on the CGEAL to enter the area?
• Which NAOC status indicates heightened alert?
• Where will the NAOC CIS take position during a klaxon?
• Which form is used when documenting a field interview?
• Who is exempt from a RVI?
• What gives SF authority to apprehend?
• What is the minimum barrel length for a rifle?
• When can a RVI be cancelled?
• Which article determines who falls under the laws of the UCMJ?
• Which item is explicitly listed as a stop, check & pass trigger?
• Who is not allowed on OAFB?
• What document must be issued to permit flight line photography?
• What is Security Forces' regular duty for PL 3 resources?
• Which item is required beyond standard ID for unescorted NAOC entry?
• What is the weapon position when challenging an individual?
• Which statement lists the elements of PRAP?
• Individuals who have a RAB w/ open area 19 but are NOT listed on any EAL may gain entry if pre announced by who?
• During a serpent formation, what is the maximum number of vehicles allowed?
• Under what condition may personal recognition be used?
• Which statement accurately describes the authentication requirement for a CGEAL?
• Where do you find a DD Form 440?
• Which statement about the SF reliability standard is true?
• What does the 5-in-5 response force consist of?
• What is the primary purpose of AF Form 75 in relation to visitors?
• Which precondition of deadly force specifically addresses escaping to avoid capture?
• Which statement best describes the Posse Comitatus Act?
• Which statement is true about the 5-in-5 force composition?
• Which groups are authorized to take photos of the flight line?
• What armored car agency is authorized to service OAFB?
• Which set of assets constitutes PL 3 resources?
• Who is the termination authority for covered wagon situations NOT involving the USSTRATCOM complex or Alert E-4B?
• Which role is included in the 5-in-5 response force?
• Which code indicates all secure?
• Which item is explicitly named as an alert recipient?
• How many personnel comprise the external response team in the 5-in-5 force?
• In on-base emergency codes, which code denotes death?
• Mental instability is associated with which code?
• Article 31 concerns which concept?
• Which of the following is NOT an element of PRAP?
• Alcohol incident form: which form number is used to document the incident?
• The Red DBIDS card is used for which personnel?
• Field interview form
• The rights advisement during questioning is mandated by which article?
• Broken arrow: What does it signify?
• In policy terms, child neglect/abuse is assigned to which code?
• A stop, check, and pass will be initiated for which triggers?
• Which set of patterns constitutes standard area searches?
• Drug detection via dog uses which code?
• In a covered wagon incident involving the USSTRATCOM complex, who has termination authority?
• No Lone Zone is defined as which of the following?
• Who assumes SVA responsibility?
• Who can initiate stop, check & pass?
• AF Form 75 is used to issue which type of pass?
• Which form provides authority to search and seize on base?
• 2 person concept team
• What is the alternate alert for the ECP?
• In a covered wagon incident not involving USSTRATCOM or Alert E-4B, who has termination authority?
• In a covered wagon incident involving the Alert E-4B, who is the termination authority?
• Which item is included in the alert recipients list?
• What is the CGEAL used for?
• Which term correctly expands the acronym FPCAM?
• What is the best method for searching a large area?
• What does the term dull sword refer to in this context?
• Which organization is not listed as an alert recipient?
• What minimum distance must the escort and escorted personnel maintain to determine duress?
• What should a close bound sentry do upon initiation of a klaxon?
• Which organization is included in the authorized flight line photography list?
• What form needs to be filled out during a vehicle changeover?
• How many personnel comprise the internal response team in the 5-in-5 force?
• Which of the following is NOT one of SF's four authorities?
• Which action is prohibited when transporting funds?
• Bent Spear is a flag word identifying what kind of incident and requires re-certification by which agency?
• PRP stands for which program?
• What are the only two questions authorized when an individual is seeking political asylum?
• Which items are included in the alert recipients list?
• When must you notify the security manager of a damaged/mutilated RAB?
• Exclusion Area is defined as the area which encompasses which components?
• What should you do with civilians suspected of committing a crime?
• Which form is the official visitor pass?
• What is the minimum barrel length for a shotgun?
• Which statement best describes Article 5’s scope?
• Who is the termination authority of covered wagon situations involving the alert E-4B?
• Which statement best describes Article 5?
• Upon assuming post, what should oncoming SF members look for?
• Which binder should be checked as part of readiness?
• AF Form 75 is used to issue which type of pass?
• What are the types of individual searches?
• Blue Dart is an emergency notification to which organization and includes which details?
• Which agency is responsible for re-certification in Bent Spear scenarios?
• Where does the alert E-6B park?
• Which option is included in the alert recipients list?
• Which option lists the PL 2 resource set?
• Who is considered a minor?
• When will sign/countersign be used?
• Exclusion Area includes which components?
• Which code indicates explosive detection by a dog?
• Under UCMJ which article authorizes SF to apprehend?
• Which code is used to change the radio frequency?
• Which area is designated as an open area?
• Which term describes an unusual incident affecting PL 1, 2 or 3 resources that is probably hostile?
• Where does the Alert NAOC park?
• Who bears the responsibility for maintaining TPC within an aircraft when it is occupied?
• What does 'Search' mean in this context?
• What is the primary alert ECP?
• What does the term 'Helping Hand' describe?
• Security incident
• Which statement correctly expands CGEAL?
• Which term describes the limited area?
• Aircrew orders must be signed and authenticated by whom?
• Which of the following is part of the Mandatory items?
• Which option best describes the correct description of the phrase used for identifying a nuclear safety deficiency?
• Which code corresponds to Immediate Assistance?
• Which personnel are allowed to carry firearms onto the installation?
• When can personal recognition be used?
• Which of the following options correctly lists all items included in a GOTWA report?
• What should you do if alert crews provide incorrect countersign twice?
• What is the consequence of hearing a klaxon related to area control in Echo 6 operations?
• Which document is used to sign in/out when entering restricted CGEAL areas?
• RAB entry for open area 19 non-listed EAL—pre-announced entry is authorized by which role?
• To take photos of the flight line, you must have which of the following?
• What does DBIDS prevent?
• AF Form 1168 is used for what?
• What is the maximum allowed length of a knife?
• During an alarm activation, what is the recommended action to ensure security coverage?
• PRP stands for which program?
• During a traffic stop, which code is used?
• Drug detection via a dog uses which code?
• Which statement best describes a No Lone Zone?
• Which of the following lists the recognized types of building searches?
• During a rapid vulnerability investigation (RVI), which form is used to document all information?
• The No Lone Zone applies to which areas?
• Federal Tort Law is defined as what?
• Which item is NOT listed as a mandatory item?
• What is the first thing you do when arriving at an alarm activation?
• Where should your M4 be stored when you are in a vehicle?
• Which option correctly describes how the M4 is stored in a vehicle?
• Who can escort any number of people or vehicles onto the base regardless of the current FPCON level?
• Which option correctly lists the PL 3 resource listing?
• Which form doubles as the bomb threat aid card?
• Max speed SF members can drive on base?
• Does SF confiscate damaged/mutilated RABs? Why?
• Who is the approving authority for use of the AVB?
• What open area is required for entry to the alert E-6B?
• Which type of area search expands in concentric circles from a central point?
• Who can escort funds over $25k?
• What is the maximum number of vehicles allowed in a serpent at a time?